ITExamDump는 퍼펙트한 구매후 서비스를 제공해드립니다.: 9월 2013

2013년 9월 30일 월요일

Juniper JN0-522 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-522
시험 이름: Juniper (FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
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일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 160 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

JN0-522 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/jn0-522.html

NO.1 Assuming factory default settings, which statement describes the minimum requirements for WebUI
management access to the SSG 5?
A.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to any interface, open a browser and access
192.168.1.1.
B.Terminate the bootup sequence from the console device, open a browser on the console device and
access 192.168.1.1.
C.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet, to the highest numbered interface and open a
browser and access 192.168.1.1.
D.Using the CLI, define an IP address on a physical interface, connect a PC to the interface and open a
browser to the interface address.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct address book entry for host C?
A.set address C 1.1.70.250/32
B.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250
C.set address Partner 1.1.70.250/32
D.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250/32
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which statement is correct about tunnel interfaces?
A.They can have overlapping IP addresses.
B.They need to be configured in the zone where the protected resources reside.
C.They can be unnumbered and used in policy-based translations if the interface is in route mode.
D.They can be unnumbered from any interface residing on the same virtual router as the protected
resources.
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days,
and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Answer:C

Juniper   JN0-522   JN0-522

NO.5 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, if host A initiates a Web browsing session with host D, and the
E0/1 interface of the SSG 20 is in NAT mode, what will be the source address of the packet arriving at
host D?
A.10.1.1.1
B.10.1.10.5
C.143.45.56.1
D.143.45.56.254
Answer:C

Juniper자료   JN0-522시험문제   JN0-522덤프

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which routing command would allow host A to communicate with
host C? (Note: Assume a route from the SSG 20 to host A's subnet already exists.)
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 int e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
B.set route 1.1.70.0 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
C.configure route 1.1.70.0/24 gateway 177.11.56.254 int e0/3
D.set route 1.1.70.0/24 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which command can you use to view the log of IKE negotiations and results?
A.get event type 536
B.get ike cookie
C.get sa active
D.debug ike basic
Answer:A

Juniper   JN0-522자료   JN0-522   JN0-522자료

NO.9 Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no
cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Answer:A B

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NO.10 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer:A B

Juniper   JN0-522   JN0-522

NO.11 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be useful for troubleshooting a policy deny?
A.get flow debug
B.debug flow basic
C.exec flow analysis
D.debug session basic
Answer:B

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated
the output shown? (Choose two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer:B C

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NO.13 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be used to view traffic logs?
A.get traffic
B.get log policy
C.get policy log
D.get log traffic
Answer:D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct command to configure a default route on the
SSG 20?
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 vrouter untrust
B.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 gateway 143.45.56.254
C.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 next-hop 143.45.56.254
D.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface 143.45.56.1 gate 143.45.56.254
Answer:B

Juniper   JN0-522기출문제   JN0-522   JN0-522   JN0-522   JN0-522

NO.15 You enter the following command: set int e0/8 mip 1.1.8.32 host 10.1.10.32 netmask 255.255.255.255
How many MIP address translations have you just configured?
A.1
B.8
C.128
D.256
Answer:A

Juniper인증   JN0-522   JN0-522자료   JN0-522인증

NO.16 You want to minimize the number of IP addresses, subnets, and policies in use. How should you
configure your tunnel interface?
A.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 32 bit subnet mask.
B.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 30 bit subnet mask.
C.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered and place the interface in the same zone as the
designated interface.
D.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered, but place the tunnel interface in a different zone than the
designated interface.
Answer:C

Juniper   JN0-522자료   JN0-522기출문제   JN0-522   JN0-522

NO.17 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer:A

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NO.18 What needs to be configured in Phase 2 of a route-based VPN, that does not need to be configured in a
policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.tunnel-binding
C.transport mode
D.custom proposals
Answer:B

Juniper   JN0-522   JN0-522최신덤프

NO.19 Which ScreenOS CLI command is required to enable a policy during specified times, days, or dates?
A.set time
B.set clock
C.set calendar
D.set scheduler
Answer:D

Juniper   JN0-522   JN0-522   JN0-522   JN0-522 dumps

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button. Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP. In the exhibit,
what is true about the configuration of this feature?
A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical
interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same
ports in the Corporate zone.
Answer:A

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-660
시험 이름: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching, Professional)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 171 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
All routers in the exhibit are running IS-IS level 2 routing. The wide-metrics-only parameter is configured
on all routers. Which metric does R1 see for the path to R4?
A. 136
B. 138
C. 310
D. 320
Answer: D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, Area 1 is a not-so-stubby area.
Three networks are redistributed into Area 1 on R2.
You must summarize the redistributed network addresses in Area 1 so that only one network prefix is
re-advertised into Area 0. You must also summarize the loopback addresses of R1 and R2 into a single
address in Area 0.Which configuration sample on R3 and R5 will complete this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

Juniper pdf   JN0-660덤프   JN0-660

NO.3 You are the administrator for a network that uses IBGP. As the network grows, you must examine
options to support increased scale.
Which two scaling options should you consider? (Choose two.)
A. route reflection
B. areas
C. zones
D. confederations
Answer: B, C

Juniper자료   JN0-660   JN0-660기출문제   JN0-660

NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
B. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the mpls.0 table with the next hop of the LSP.
C. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
D. The 172.20.20.0/24 route is installed in the inet6.3 table with the next hop of the LSP.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
You are asked to configure an OSPF network based on the topology shown in the exhibit. You must keep
the link-state database in Area 1 as small as possible. What will accomplish this?
A. Area 0 should be configured as a stub area so that it will not announce routes into Area 1.
B. Area 1 should be configured as an NSSA to limit the size of the link-state database.
C. Area 1 should be configured as a stub area with no-summaries to limit the size of the link-state
database.
D. Area 0 should be configured with a virtual link to R4 to limit the size of the Area 1 link-state database.
Answer: C

Juniper최신덤프   JN0-660시험문제   JN0-660 pdf

NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which type of traffic protection mechanism is used for the LSP?
A. fast-reroute
B. link-protection
C. node-link-protection
D. secondary
Answer: B

Juniper pdf   JN0-660   JN0-660자료   JN0-660최신덤프   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
On your MX Series router, traffic using the critical scheduler is out of profile. All other data is currently in
profile. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The critical queue is serviced before the less-critical queue.
B. The critical queue is serviced after the left-over queue.
C. The critical queue is serviced before the data queue.
D. The critical queue is serviced before the voice queue.
Answer: B

Juniper덤프   JN0-660   JN0-660덤프   JN0-660시험문제   JN0-660

NO.8 Your multicast receivers are indirectly connected to an MX Series router. The receivers need to join
multicast group 224.2.2.2. What must be configured in IGMP to receive report messages from receivers
that are multiple hops away?
A. By default, IGMP accepts report messages from indirectly connected receivers.
B. Promiscuous mode must be enabled in IGMP.
C. Promiscuous mode must be disabled in IGMP.
D. DVMRP protocol must be configured.
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-660 dump   JN0-660

NO.9 You are provisioning a new customer for access to your Layer 3 VPN. The customer is using
172.16.35.0/24 as their internal IP address space, which is also being used by an existing Layer 3 VPN
customer. The two customers share many PE routers in common across your network. Which mechanism
allows these duplicate addresses to exist in your network?
A. route origin
B. route target
C. route refresh
D. route distinguisher
Answer: D

Juniper자격증   JN0-660   JN0-660 dumps   JN0-660기출문제

NO.10 You manage an MPLS network where the PE devices consist of multiple vendors.
You are asked to conceal the MPLS topology for all LSPs.
Which global configuration parameter will accomplish this?
A. Configure no-decrement-ttl on the ingress router only.
B. Configure no-propagate-ttl on the ingress router only.
C. Configure no-decrement-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
D. Configure no-propagate-ttl on all routers within the MPLS network.
Answer: D

Juniper인증   JN0-660   JN0-660덤프

NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, ISP A is charged a higher rate for traffic sent to R2. You are asked to lower costs for ISP A
by configuring R1 to send traffic to R3 whenever possible.
What are two ways to do this? (Choose two.)
A. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 120
B. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.6 local-preference 80
C. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 120
D. set protocols bgp group isp-b neighbor 192.0.2.10 local-preference 80
Answer: B, C

Juniper자료   JN0-660최신덤프   JN0-660덤프   JN0-660최신덤프

NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
All networks shown in the exhibit contain more than one BGP speaking router. You operate ISP A.
You must ensure that customer Y sends their traffic to you over the directly connected link but customer Y
is not used for transit into your network. What do you do to accomplish this? A. Advertise routes to
customer Y with the well-known no-transit community.
B. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known no-advertise community.
C. Advertise routes to customer Y with the well-known no-export community.
D. Advertise routes to customer X with the well-known as-transit community.
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-660자료   JN0-660 dump   JN0-660

NO.13 Which CoS feature supports per-VLAN queuing and scheduling?
A. multilevel scheduling
B. hierarchical scheduling
C. tagged queuing
D. per-instance queuing
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-660 dumps   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which MPLS feature was used to make the LSP the preferred path for internal
routes.?
A. traffic engineering bgp-igp
B. traffic engineering shortcuts
C. traffic engineering mpls-forwarding
D. install active
Answer: C

Juniper   JN0-660 dump   JN0-660

NO.15 Your are the administrator for a network that uses IS-IS as its IGP. As the network grows, you find that
the protocol's default capabilities for setting metrics is limiting your options. Which feature can you
implement to provide a larger range of metric configuration capabilities?
A. extended metrics
B. wide metrics
C. expanded metrics
D. full metrics
Answer: D

Juniper최신덤프   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.16 Which two statements are true about OSPFv3? (Choose two.)
A. OSPFv3 uses a 32-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
B. OSPFv3 uses a 128-bit router ID to uniquely identify a node in the network.
C. OSPFv3 routes are always preferred over OSPFv2 routes for all traffic.
D. OSPFv3 and OSPFv2 can be configured at the same time.
Answer: A, D

Juniper기출문제   JN0-660자격증   JN0-660 pdf   JN0-660자격증

NO.17 Which operational mode command displays the number of configured forwarding classes?
A. show interfaces queue ge-1/0/0
B. show interfaces terse
C. show class-of-service interface
D. show forwarding classes
Answer: A

Juniper pdf   JN0-660자료   JN0-660 dump

NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the drop profile in the exhibit, what is the drop probability when the buffer reaches 90% full?
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 90%
Answer: B

Juniper   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660

NO.19 In which two ways does VPLS populate the MAC table? (Choose two.)
A. dynamically using BGP
B. dynamically using the source MAC address on received frames
C. dynamically using LDP
D. statically using CLI
Answer: B, D

Juniper최신덤프   JN0-660 dump   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660   JN0-660인증

NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
As shown in the exhibit, you have an adaptive LSP that requires 85 Mbps. The LSP is configured with a
primary path and a secondary path in standby mode. All connections in the MPLS network are Fast
Ethernet. Which statement is correct?
A. The primary and secondary paths are in an up state and operational.
B. The primary and secondary paths are in a down state and not operational.
C. The secondary path is in a down state and not operational.
D. The primary path is in a down state and not operational.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-370
시험 이름: Juniper (QFabric, Specialist (JNCIS-QF))
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시험 이름: Juniper (Enterprise Routing and Switching Support, Professional (JNCSP-ENT))
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NO.1 You are troubleshooting a problem where an OSPF adjacency between two neighboring
routers will not form.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family inet statement.
B. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family iso statement.
C. The connected interfaces are not on the same subnet.
D. Another IGP is running on one or both of the routers, overriding OSPF.
Answer: B,D

Juniper   JN0-694   JN0-694기출문제

NO.2 Two neighboring routers are able to form an OSPF adjacency, but are not able to establish an
IBGP neighborship.
What are two reasons for the IBGP neighborship problem? (Choose two.)
A. One of the devices has a misconfigured BGP peer address.
B. One or both of the connected interfaces are missing the family iso statement.
C. OSPF has a lower route preference than BGP .
D. A firewall filter on one of the interfaces is blocking TCP traffic.
Answer: B,C

Juniper   JN0-694   JN0-694   JN0-694자격증   JN0-694

NO.3 Your Junos device is dropping certain traffic flows, while allowing other traffic flows to pass
through the device unaffected.
Which CoS component is causing this problem?
A. BA classification
B. RED
C. MF classification
D. Rewrite rules
Answer: D

Juniper pdf   JN0-694자료   JN0-694   JN0-694   JN0-694

NO.4 Your switch is experiencing a problem where a port that should have only one host connected
occasionally shows that multiple MAC addresses are being learned.
Which configuration setting would ensure that no extra hosts can join the network using this switch
port?
A. mac-limit
B. no-mac-learning
C. persistent-learning
D. bpdu-block-on-edge
Answer: D

Juniper시험문제   JN0-694자격증   JN0-694최신덤프   JN0-694덤프   JN0-694

NO.5 You observe that a router is using an unusually high amount of CPU cycles.
You determine that continuous SPF calculations in OSPF are being performed.
What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The wrong authentication keys between the OSPF neighbors are used.
B. The interface MTU is mismatched between the OSPF neighbors.
C. There are duplicate router IDs within the OSPF area.
D. An OSPF adjacency is flapping.
Answer: C,D

Juniper기출문제   JN0-694   JN0-694   JN0-694 dumps

NO.6 You are having problems redistributing RIP routes into OSPF. Your Junos device has the
following configuration:
[edit protocols ospf]
user@router# show
import my-policy;
area 0.0.0.0 {
interface ge-0/ 0/ 0.0;
interface ge-0/ 0/ ;
interface ge-0/ 0/ {
passive;
}
}
What would resolve the problem?
A. Apply my-policy as an export policy under the [edit protocols rip] hierarchy.
B. Apply my-policy as an import policy under the [edit protocols rip] hierarchy.
C. Apply my-policy as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D. Use the area-range parameter instead of a routing policy.
Answer: D

Juniper덤프   JN0-694자격증   JN0-694자료   JN0-694 pdf

NO.7 You are implementing Q-in-Q tunneling on an EX Series switch. You want the tunnel to support
all C-VLANs; however, only some VLANs are able to send traffic across the tunnel.
Switch-1 has the following configuration:
[edit vlans]
user@Switch-1# show
v100 {
vlan-id 100;
interface {
ge-0/ 0/ 0.10;
ge-0/ 0/1.20;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
customer-vlans [ ];
}
}
What would solve this problem?
A. Add family ethernet-switching to the tunnel-side interface on Switch-1.
B. Implement RSTP .
C. Q-in-Q tunneling will not work in this scenario; use a Layer 2 VPN instead.
D. Remove the customer-vlans statement.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your Layer 2 network uses VLAN IDs 100 through 400 and you are required to load-balance
these VLANs between two different root bridges. You are currently using the default RSTP settings
and notice that all VLANs are using the same root bridge.
How do you ensure the VLANs are load-balanced between two root bridges?
A. Configure MSTP with two MSTI regions and split the VLAN range between them.
B. Configure VSTP with two VLAN groups and split the VLAN range between them.
C. Configure two RSTP instances and split the VLAN range between them.
D. Configure STP and RSTP and split the VLAN range between them.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: 630-008
시험 이름: ISM (C.P.M. Module 4: Management)
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NO.1 Which of the following theories suggests that managers can attain the greatest level
of employee motivation by determining the most desirable outcomes?
A. Theory X.
B. Theory Z.
C. Expectancy theory.
D. Scientific management.
E. Motivation-Hygiene theory.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements regarding the orientation of a buyer trainee are
FALSE?
A. The trainee should be informed of personal growth opportunities.
B. Orientation and training should be conducted separately during the trainee's initial
months on the job.
C. The trainee should be informed that his/her performance will be evaluated during
orientation and later on.
D. The trainee should be advised of purchasing's major staff and line activities.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Certkiller .com has more than 10,000 employees located on two regional branches
and on several smaller branches. Annual purchases of goods and services for
Certkiller .com exceed $150 million. In which of the following ways would
Certkiller .com LEAST likely benefit from a highly centralized purchasing function?
A. Improvements due to decreased duplication of effort.
B. Adherence to organization-wide standards and objectives.
C. Savings from standardization and improved economies of scale.
D. Satisfaction of product and source preferences for internal customers.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In which of the following defines a situation where objectives are more general at
the top of an organization and become more specific as one moves down the
organization?
A. Hierarchy of objectives.
B. Management By Objectives (MBO).
C. Decision support system.
D. Goal setting.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. A female employee has been
working for Certkiller .com for about 12 years and has 3 years to go until her
scheduled retirement. Recently, she was laid off from her position, and her duties
were absorbed by younger workers in the department. Under which of the following
is she MOST likely to have a claim against the company?
A. Equal Employment Opportunity Act.
B. National Labor Relations Act.
C. Age Discrimination Act.
D. Executive Order 11246.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is LEAST important when evaluating buyer performance?
A. Quality of work.
B. Quantity of work.
C. Personal appearance.
D. Communication skills.
Answer: C

ISM   630-008   630-008   630-008자격증

NO.7 Which of the following does profit planning begin?
A. Business plans.
B. Long-range strategic plans.
C. Short-range strategic plans.
D. Strategic and operational plans.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is generally NOT strategic in nature?
A. New advertising schedule implementation.
B. New dividend policy direction.
C. New product development.
D. New sources of financing.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. One of your buyers tends to
ignore outstanding purchase orders. This has resulted in numerous complaints from
the shop floor asking the buyer to determine order status. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Inform the buyer to set up a system for follow-up.
B. Computerize the purchasing department operations.
C. Allow shop floor personnel to make their own purchases.
D. Inform the buyer that she will be dismissed if she does not improve her performance.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. You are instructed to reduce
Certkiller .cm's MRO supplier base from 50 to 1. Which of the following would be
your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Buying at the lowest total cost, consistent with quality and service.
B. Achieving a high degree of cooperation with internal customers.
C. Developing reliable alternatives of supply.
D. Optimizing inventory turnover.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate measure of performance for a
purchasing department?
A. Average time to place requisitions.
B. Total dollars contributed to profits.
C. Total dollars purchased per supplier.
D. Total product cost reduction compared to budget.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following would NOT be included in a typical audit of the purchasing
department in a manufacturing operation?
A. Inspection.
B. Organization policy.
C. Purchasing operations.
D. Inventory management.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following documents is MOST important in transportation?
A. Bill of materials.
B. Bill of lading.
C. Bill of sale.
D. Manifest.
Answer: B

ISM   630-008   630-008   630-008

NO.14 Which of the following is NOT a good indicator of purchasing department
performance?
A. Quality rejection rates for major items.
B. Number of purchase orders issued.
C. Percentage of on-time deliveries.
D. Number of stockout situations.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Under which of the following circumstances is negative feedback appropriate?
A. Soon after the occurrence of the faulty behavior.
B. In the presence of other managerial personnel.
C. In the presence of other team members.
D. It is never appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the training method that facilitates the development of organization-wide
skills and requires good interpersonal skills called?
A. Functional rotation.
B. On-the-job training.
C. The "buddy" system.
D. Continuing education.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is NOT an advantage of promoting from within the
purchasing organization?
A. Keeping morale high.
B. Reducing training costs.
C. Stimulating individual performance.
D. Bringing experience in complementary areas.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following methods should a purchasing manager use when evaluating
individual employee performance?
A. Performance standards set by the U.S. Department of Labor.
B. The requirements of the job, including position descriptions.
C. Management By Objectives, whether or not the employee helped set the objectives.
D. Uniform company-wide standards of performance developed by the human resources
department.
Answer: B

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NO.19 You work as a purchasing manager at Certkiller .com. An employee that has been at
Certkiller .com for 20-years has become accustomed to coming to work 30-45
minutes late. Initially, this was due to child-rearing responsibilities, but now is a
simply habit. The supervisor has asked the employee several times if there was a
problem and the answer has always been "no." The problem is beginning to have a
negative impact on the morale of the rest of the department. Which of the following
would be your BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Dismiss the employee.
B. Have the employee attend counseling sessions.
C. Ask the human resources department to intervene and find a solution to the problem.
D. Set goals with the employee to improve on arrival time, and include a written report in
the employee's file.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following can BEST enhance a measurement and control system for
evaluating buyer performance?
A. Including the buyer in the design of the system.
B. Including human resources in the design of the system.
C. Making a composite measurement of efficiency and effectiveness.
D. Being sufficiently broad in scope to allow the measurement of all contingencies.
Answer: A

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시험 이름: ISEB (IT Service Management Foundation)
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NO.1 Which of the following activities may, exceptionally, be omitted for an urgent
change:
1. Recording that the change has been made
2. Testing the change
3. Holding a CAB meeting

NO.2 Which of these is/are TRUE?
1. Functional escalation is an essential part of the Incident Management process
2. All calls to the Service Desk should be treated as incidents
3. Service Requests can be handled by Service Desk Staff
A. 1 and 3
B. All three of them
C. Only 1
D. 1 and 2
Answer: A

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NO.3 Establishing a back-out plan
A. All of them
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Answer: C

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4.Why is Service Management so important to IT service providers?
A. The success of many businesses depends upon the quality of their IT
B. It's the only way to manage IT in the Internet age
C. It's contained within the IT Infrastructure Library
D. It's the first non-proprietary initiative for the management of IT systems
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is there sometimes conflict between the goals of Incident Management and
those of Problem Management?
A. Because specialist support staff do not properly document the work-arounds they
identify which consequently prevents the 1st line support staff from applying them the
next time the incident occurs
B. Because Problem Management is often carried out by technical staff who also have
operations responsibilities and who cannot allocate enough resources to problem solving
C. Because Problem Management is focusing on identifying permanent solutions and
therefore the speed with which these solutions are found is of secondary importance
D. Because Problem Management staff rarely give feedback spontaneously, forcing the
1st line support staff to chase them
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following places Problem Management activities in the correct order:
A. Identify and record, classify, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, review the
change
B. Investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, identify and record
C. Identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise an RFC, classify, review the
change
D. Review a change, classify, identify and record, investigate and diagnose, raise another
RFC
Answer: A

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NO.6 A service-based (rather than a customer-based) SLA:
A. Covers all services for a particular customer
B. Covers a set of similar services, for a single customer
C. Covers all services
D. Covers a single service, for all of the customers of that service
Answer: D

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NO.7 Possible problems with Change Management include:
A. Greater ability to absorb a large volume of change
B. Increased visibility and communication of changes
C. Lack of ownership of impacted services
D. Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Release Management
process?
A. The physical aspects of software control
B. Ensuring that the accuracy of CMDB entries concerning software CIs is maintained
C. Helping to determine the software release policy
D. Distributing software
Answer: B

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NO.9 Who must always authorise a Request for Change before the change is built and
tested?
A. The Configuration Manager
B. The Change Initiator
C. The Change Manager
D. Release Management
Answer: C

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NO.10 With which of the following processes is Problem Management least likely to
interface on a regular basis?
A. IT Financial Management
B. Change Management
C. Incident Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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ISEB BH0-007 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: BH0-007
시험 이름: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)
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NO.1 Scenario 2 Your organisation is a large media services corporation (MSC). MSC uses Agile
development, within a Scrum framework. Here, the iterations are referred to as Sprints. For each Sprint, a
set of user-stories is defined, built, and tested. The user-stories are typically 1-2 lines long, indicating
what the customer wants the system to do. MSC is in the process of updating its website to meet the
recently introduced accessibility rules for websites. Accessibility means the availability of a system
suitable to members of the public with, for example, visual or hearing difficulties. It has been decided to
start with two requirements, as its first 2 Sprints: 1)Presentation of content with clear headings, short
sentences, text versions always available. 2)Consistent navigation through the website. You are the test
manager and there are four developers and two testers. You have all worked together previously, and are
very experienced in MSCs products. Although the accessibility rules are new to you and the team, you
have all attended a workshop where they were explained. Which of the following are product risks and
which are project risks? a.The navigation through some parts of the website may need to be different from
others. b.Sprint 1 may not be completed on time, leading to a delay to the start of Sprint 2. c.Text versions
of images may not always be possible. d.There may be a need to buy a capture-replay tool for regression
testing. e.A key member of the team may leave before the Sprints have been completed.
A.a, b and c are product risks, d and e are project risks.
B.a and c are products risks, b, d and e are project risks.
C.b, c and e are product risks, a and d are project risks.
D.a, d and e are product risks, b and c are project risks.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. A serious issue has arisen with emails arriving at the wrong
destinations. This is an intermittent problem, and seems to occur only at peak loading times. Which of the
following reviews would you recommend to address this issue?
A.A walkthrough of the requirement specification, to check for errors.
B.A management review of defects logged and cleared to see if defects are being addressed correctly.
C.A technical review of the industry standard routing protocols to see if they have inaccuracies in them.
D.An inspection of the code for this part of the functionality to try to localise the defective parts of the code.
Answer:D

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NO.3 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following would be applicable as part of a test policy
for testing these types of systems? a.Systems must be tested for compliance to industry standard routing
protocols. b.Testing for the latest upgrade will require testing of increased network traffic of 100%.
c.Testing for the fix will require the use of dynamic analysis tools. d.Releases will not be made if systems
have any high priority defects outstanding.
A.a and b.
B.a and d.
C.b and c.
D.b and d.
Answer:B

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NO.4 Scenario 1 A computerised system is being created to monitor the life support system on board a
submarine. It monitors air quality, water supplies and temperature. This system will be supplied and
maintained by SubsInc. SubsInc uses the V-model for software development and conducts four levels of
testing, from unit through to operational and site acceptance testing. Two key risks identified for the air
quality system are: 1. If the percentage of oxygen in the air falls too low, personnel may suffocate 2. If the
concentration of carbon dioxide in the air rises too high, the air may become toxic. To address these risks,
the requirement specification for this system includes the following requirements: R1)Oxygen must be
replaced as it is consumed. R2)Carbon dioxide must be removed from the air. These requirements must
be reflected in the functional, technical and program specification documents. You are a newly recruited
test manager. A risk register has been produced with the following additional risks identified. Which one is
a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A.The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to monitor
air temperatures.
B.SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C.Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D.Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Scenario 3 Data is transmitted over the internet as a series of packets. Each packet is sent to its
destination via the best available route. The decision on the best available route is made by a series of
routers on the internet. In order to make the best decision on the route to take, the router: 1)Scans the
destination address and matches it against rules set up in a configuration table. 2)Checks the
performance of the primary connection to see if it is good enough to send the packet. If not, it seeks an
alternative. Routers handle many millions of packets being sent at the same time. Packets can take the
form of email messages, data files etc. Which of the following best describes a testing challenge of the
application domain of the routers described?
A.Testing that the receivers PC can store emails routed to it.
B.Testing that large organisations can scan incoming files routed to them for viruses.
C.Testing that packets are delivered by the routers in the required timescales.
D.Testing that files can be sent in any language.
Answer:C

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시험 번호/코드: ISEB-ITILV3F
시험 이름: ISEB (ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
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NO.1 Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged

NO.2 Control of user desk-top PCs

NO.3 Create and use diagnostic scripts

NO.4 Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Technical Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 Dashboard type technology
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

ISEB   ISEB-ITILV3F   ISEB-ITILV3F   ISEB-ITILV3F시험문제
2. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A. Application Management
B. Service Desk
C. Incident Management
D. Technical Management
Answer: C

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3. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change
Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A

ISEB   ISEB-ITILV3F   ISEB-ITILV3F
4. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are?
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Answer: D

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ISEB BH0-011 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: BH0-011
시험 이름: ISEB (BCS Intermediate certificate in EU Code of Conduct for Data)
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NO.1 'Facility load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the following?
a. The UPS.
b. Lighting.
c. Air-conditioning units.
d. Monitors housed in racks.
e. Tape libraries
A. a, b, and c
B. a and d
C. b and c
D. d, and e
Answer: A

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NO.2 The numerical value associated with each Best Practice is shown for the following reason:
A. To allow operators to add up their total score in order that they can be compared with their competitors.
B. To allow the Code of Conduct administrators to properly assess each application.
C. To provide an independent scorecard for data centre owners.
D. To indicate the level of benefit from carrying out a Best Practice.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following BEST define the aims of the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres.?
a. To determine and accelerate the application of energy efficient technologies.
b. Develop practical voluntary commitments which when implemented improve the energy efficiency of
data centres and in so doing minimise the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
c. To develop and promote a set of easily understood metrics to measure the current efficiencies and
subsequent improvement.
d. To encourage the closure of data centres that are less energy efficient.
e. To ensure that the EU is visibly taking a lead in this important area of energy conservation.
A. a, b, c and d
B. d and e
C. a, b and c
D. e only
Answer: C

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NO.4 Why has the EU Code of Conduct on Data Centres been developed?
a. Because data centres are using an increasing amount of power and they need to maximise their
efficiency to reduce their impact on the power infrastructure.
b. Because the power consumption of data centres across Europe as a whole needs to fall to meet
agreed C02 targets.
c. Because many data centres have outdated designs which focus on perceived reliability at the expense
of cost and energy efficiency.
d. Because the energy consumption of data centres has become a significant business cost.
e. Because the United States (US) has taken a significant lead in energy conservation and EU-based data
centres need a code of conduct to compete in a global marketplace.
A. a, b, c and d
B. a, c and d
C. b and e
D. e only
Answer: B

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NO.5 A facility's 'IT load', as defined by the Code of Conduct, includes the power drawn by which of the
following?
a. The Power Distribution Units feeding the racks
b. Servers
c. Firewalls
d. Switches
e. Tape libraries
A. b, c. d and e
B. a, d and e
C. b and c
D. b. c and d
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: CISSP
시험 이름: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
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NO.1 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.7 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.10 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.11 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.13 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.22 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.23 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.24 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.27 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.29 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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